This lecture is mainly based the following textbooks:
Study review and practice: I strongly recommend using Prof. Henrique Castro (FGV-EAESP) materials. Below you can find the links to the corresponding exercises related to this lecture:
\(\rightarrow\) For coding replications, whenever applicable, please follow this page or hover on the specific slides with coding chunks
There are a couple of observations based on historical data:
Small stocks had the highest long-term return, while T-Bills had the lowest
Small stocks had the largest fluctuations in price, while T-Bills had the lowest
Higher risk requires a higher return
More realistic investment horizons and different timeframes can greatly influence each investment’s risk and return over time
Think about each possible return that a given investment can deliver. Each \(R\) has some likelihood (or probability) of occurring
This information is summarized with a probability distribution, which assigns a probability, \(P_{R}\) , that each possible return, \(R\), will occur
\[ \small P(R)= \begin{cases} 25\% \text{, for } R = 140, \\ 50\% \text{, for } R = 110, \\ 25\% \text{, for } R = 80, \\ \end{cases} \]
Definition
Expected Return is the average of all possible returns, weighted by its return probability:
\[ E[R] = \sum_{R} P_R \times R \]
\[\small E[R_{BFI}] = 25\%\times(−0.20) + 50\%\times(0.10) + 25\%\times(0.40) = 10\%\]
Look at our previous example on BMA
Definition
Stardard Deviation (Variance) of returns is the average deviation (average squared deviation) from the expected return:
\[Var(R) = E[(R-E[R])^2] = \sum_{R} P_R \times (R-E[R])^2 \]
\[SD(R) = \sqrt{Var(R)}\]
\[\text{Var}(R_{BMA}) = \sigma^2_{BMA}=0.25 × (−0.2 − 0.1)^2 + 0.5 × (0.1 − 0.1)^2 + 0.25 × (0.4 − 0.1)^2 = 0.045\]
\[SD(R_{BFI}) = \sigma_{BMA}= \sqrt{0.045} = 21.2\%\]
Expected Returns and the Variance (or the Standard Deviation) of returns are often used to characterize an asset in terms of risk and return. There are, notwithstanding, some caveats when we consider real cases of asset returns:
Important
Standard Deviation/Variance are correct measures of total risk only if the returns are normally distributed]{.blue}!
As we saw, there seems to be a positive relationship between risk and return:
This assumption can also be externalized to different asset classes and/or markets:
Our first example was a case where we knew the potential returns and their corresponding probabilities. With that, we were able to estimate the assets’ expected return
In real-world applications, however, we do not know the potential returns and their probabilities. Because of that, the distribution of past returns can be helpful when we seek to estimate the distribution of returns investors may expect in the future
Definition
Therealized (or historical) return is the return that actually occurs over a particular time period. Suppose you invest in a stock on date \(t\) for price \(P_t\) . If the stock pays a dividend, \(Div_{t +1}\) , on date \(t + 1\), and you sell the stock at that time for price \(P_{t +1}\), then the realized return from your investment in the stock from \(t\rightarrow t + 1\) is:
\[R_{t+1} = \frac{\overbrace{Div_{t+1}}^{\text{Dividend yield}} + \overbrace{P_{t+1}}^{\text{Capital Gain}}}{P_t} - 1\]
\[ PV=\dfrac{FV}{(1+r)^n}\rightarrow FV = PV \times (1+r)^n \]
\[ FV= PV\times(1+r)^n \rightarrow P_4 = P_3\times(1+R_4)^1 \]
\[ \small P_4 = P_3\times(1+R_4)\\ \small P_4 = P_2\times(1+R_3)\times(1+R_4)\\ \small P_4 = P_1\times(1+R_2)\times\times(1+R_3)\times(1+R_4)\\ \small P_4 = \underbrace{P_0}_{\text{Initial Price}}\times\underbrace{(1+R_1)\times(1+R_2)\times(1+R_3)\times(1+R_4)}_{\text{Total Return for the Period}} \]
\(\rightarrow\) In words: the compounded return of a given asset over a period of time is just the product of all individual \((1+R_t)\)
\[(1 + 𝑅_{Annual}) = (1+𝑅_{Q1})\times(1+𝑅_{Q2})\times(1+ 𝑅_{Q3})\times (1+𝑅_{Q4})\]
Important
You should know whether the return is calculated adjusted by dividends (they usually are, but always ask). For example, Yahoo! Finance provides Open, High, Low, Close, and Adjusted Close trading prices for each asset that is being tracked, where Adjusted Close is defined by the closing price adjusted for dividends and stock splits. If you use R
, Python
, or any API to pull this data, ensure to use the information adjusted by dividends and splits!
Date | Price ($) | Dividends ($) | Return |
---|---|---|---|
12/31/2011 | 58.69 | - | - |
1/31/2012 | 61.44 | 0.26 | 5.13% |
4/30/2012 | 63.94 | 0.26 | 4.49% |
7/31/2012 | 48.5 | 0.26 | -23.74% |
10/31/2012 | 54.88 | 0.29 | 13.75% |
12/31/2012 | 53.31 | 0 | -2.86% |
\[𝑅_{2012}=(1.0513)\times(1.0449)\times(0.7626)\times(1.1375)\times(0.9714)−1=−7.43\%\]
Date | Price ($) | Dividends ($) | Return |
---|---|---|---|
12/31/2015 | 6.73 | - | - |
3/31/2016 | 5.72 | - | -15.01% |
6/30/2016 | 4.81 | - | -15.91% |
9/30/2016 | 5.20 | - | 8.11% |
12/31/2016 | 2.29 | - | -55.96% |
\[ 𝑅_{2016}=(0.8499)\times(0.8409)\times(1.0811)\times(0.4404)−1=−65.9\%\]
\[\small \frac{2.29}{6.73}-1 = -65.9\%\]
Definition
The average annual return of an investment during some historical period is simply the average of the realized returns for each year.
\[\overline{R} = \frac{1}{T} (𝑅_1 + 𝑅_2 + ⋯ + 𝑅_𝑇) = \frac{1}{T} \sum_{t=1}^{T} R_t\]
Now, using the estimate for \(\overline{R}\), we can calculate the yearly variance and standard deviation as:
\[\small Var[R] = \frac{1}{T-1} \sum_{t=1}^{T} (R_t- \overline{R})^2 \]
\[\small SD(R) = \sqrt{Var(R)}\]
Important
Warning: because you are using a sample of historical returns (instead of the population) there is a T-1 in the variance formula. As \(T\rightarrow \infty\), then \(T-1 \rightarrow T\) and the sample variance approximates the population one.
Let’s use this rationale to calculate the expected returns from Petrobrás S.A (ticker: PETR3):
Data Exercise
Because you don’t know the actual probabilities, you need to replace your expectation operator, \(E(\cdot)\), by a sample analogue - in our case, we calculate the expected returns as the sample average of past returns and the volatility as the sample standard deviation.
Definition
The standard error of the average return is given by:
\[SE(R) = \frac{SD(R)}{\sqrt{\text{Number of Observations}}}\]
From 2020 to 2024 (year-to-date), we have 62 months, and an sample standard deviation of returns of 11.72%
Assume that the returns from PETR3 follow a normal distribution. You know from our statistics course that, for a normally-distributed random variable, a 95% confidence interval is corevered by \(\pm 1.96\) standard errors:
\[E[R] \pm 1.96\times SE = 1.12 \pm 1.96\times \dfrac{11.72}{\sqrt{62}}=[-1.8\%,+4.04\%]\]
\[E[R] \pm 1.96\times SE = 12\% \pm 1.96\times\frac{19.8\%}{\sqrt{92}}= 12\% \pm 4.05\%\]
This means that, with 95% confidence interval, the expected return of the S&P 500 during this period ranges from 7.9% and 16.1%
The longer the period, the more accurate you are. But even with 92 years of data, you are not very accurate to predict the expected return of the S&P500.
\[\small CAGR = [(1+R_1)\times(1+R_2)\times ...\times (1+R_T)]^{\frac{1}{T}}-1\]
\[\small CAGR = \bigg[\prod_{i=1}^{62}(1+R_i)\bigg]^{\frac{1}{62}}-1\approx 0.38\%\]
We saw that whenever average returns are higher, they’re generally riskier
Relatedly, investors are assumed to be risk averse:
Definition
As of now, we focused on a single asset case to analyze the risk and return
Why? Diversification! To see that, can think of risk in terms of two components:
When investors hold a portfolio of assets, the portfolio risk is lower than the weighted-average of the individual asset’s risks
Why diversification works that way? The rationale behind the argument:
In practice, individual firms are affected by both market-wide risks and firm-specific risks
When firms carry both types of risk, only the idiosyncratic risk will be diversified by forming a portfolio!
This also explains why you haven’t found a clear risk \(\times\) return relationship between individual stocks, but when the firm-specific risk is eliminated (through portfolio formation), risk \(\times\) return comparison only consider the different exposure to systematic risks!
To build on the previous point, consider two types of firms:
Consider again Type I firms, which are affected only by firm-specific risk. Because each individual Type I firm is risky, should investors expect to earn a risk premium when investing in type I firms?
The short answers is no, because the risk premium for diversifiable risk is zero, so investors are not compensated for holding firm-specific risk!
\(\rightarrow\) The key takeaway here is that the risk premium of a security is determined by solely by its systematic risk and does not depend on its diversifiable risk
Let’s use this rationale to understand how increasing the portfolio can reduce its volatility
Data Exercise
Download the data using the following button and proceed with the practical exercise.
All in all, in a world where diversification exists, the Standard Deviation is not a good measure for risk anymore:
Does that mean that standard deviation (or the variance) should never be used?
As we saw before, when it comes to diversification benefits, only the idiosyncratic risk can be diversified, whereas the systematic risk remains in place
As a consequence, if you assume that diversification is possible, the standard deviation is not a good measure for risk anymore, as it mixes both types of risk: the one we can get rid out with diversification, and the one which we cannot get rid
To measure the systematic risk of a stock, we need to quantity of the variability of its return is due to:
Question: how can we decompose the risk into these components and extract the systematic part of a given stock’s risk?
\[ \beta=\dfrac{\Delta \overline R_S}{\Delta \overline{R}_{M}} \]
Suppose the market portfolio tends to increase by +47% when the economy is strong and decline by -25% when the economy is weak. What is the beta of a Type S (i.e, with only systematic risk) firm whose return is +40% on average when the economy is strong and −20% when the economy is weak?
Important: it does not mean that the stock has three \(\beta\)’s. Rather, it just means that we have three estimates for the stock’s sensitivity to systematic risk (\(\beta\))
Also, note that, using the the same setting as before, the \(\beta\) of a Type I firm that bears only idiosyncratic, firm-specific risk is zero: \(\beta=\frac{0}{72}=0\)
Let’s say that you decide to hold the exact market portfolio (e.g, buy an ETF that mimicks the S&P500, Dow Jones Index, or even the Ibovespa Index for a brazilian setting). By definition, because your portfolio is exactly the market portfolio, then \(\beta=1\)
You know that, rationally, the higher the risk, the higher the return you need to earn in order to justify holding this portfolio (and not holding, for example, risk-free assets)
The question that remains is…how much are you earning, in addition to a risk-free portfolio, for bearing systematic risk?
Definition
The Market (or Equity) Risk Premium (or MRP) is the reward investors expect to earn for holding a portfolio with a \(\beta\) of 1 - i.e, the market portfolio:
\[\text{MRP} = \underbrace{E[R_m]}_{\text{Return of the Market portfolio}} - \underbrace{R_{F}}_{\text{Return of a risk-free asset}}\]
\[E[R_m] = R_{F} + MRP\]
\(\rightarrow\) Key Takeaway: the return of the market portfolio is simply the sum of the risk-free return and the premium for bearing systematic risk!
Consider an investment with \(\beta = 1.5\)
Question: what is the expected return for investing in this specific stock? Based on these figures, we can compute the expected return for this investment, adjusted by the level or risk it provides:
\[E[R] = R_{rf} + \beta \times (E[R_m] - R_{rf})\]
Assume the economy has a 60% chance that the market return will be 15% next year and a 40% chance the market return will be 5% next year. Assume the risk-free rate is 6%. If a company’s beta is 1.18, what is its expected return next year?
\[ E[R_m] = 60\% \times 15\% + 40\% \times 5\% = 11\%\]
\[E[R] = 6\% + 1.18 \times (11\% - 6\%) = 11.9\%\]
\(\rightarrow\) Key Takeaway: because the stock riskier than the market portfolio, the risk-premium is also higher!
Important
Practice using the following links: